New symbol?
What's notable about the security?
TB6M
T-Bill that pays a guaranteed $100 six months after beginning of the case
What do you have to do?
decide whether or not to buy or sell the T-Bill
Anything special?
Things to explain
Payments: receive $100 per owned bond, pay $100 per owed bond
Your task is to beat the risk-free rate!
in case: \(T=52\), \(C=\$100\)
New symbol?
What's notable about the securities?
TB6M, TB12M, 1YCP
What do you have to do?
decide whether or not to buy each of the securities
Anything special?
Special case: everything annual
Oddity of bonds: when you buy a bond between two coupon dates, then the seller is entitled to the portion of the coupon payments that pertains to the holding period. Economically, this is total nonsense, but here we are. Formally:
clean price = does not contain accrued interest
dirty price = contain accrued interests
RIT quotes clean prices (so you need to add accrued interest to your cost)
\(t=\) Time till terminal cash flow
in case:
present value of cash flows
=
note that you have to pay accrued interest so your willingness to pay for the cash flow is diminshed by this exact amount (which is why it is economic nonsense to charge it)
Note: the formulae two slides up were based on the beginning of a time period; in RIT, there are "interim" interest payments; hence the different formulation
New symbol?
What's notable about the securities?
no, same as FI2
there is no savings account/savings account rate is 0%
What do you have to do?
exploit arbitrage opportunities among the three securities
Anything special?
revisit your knowledge from bond pricing from MGT330
Option 1: Buy the coupon bond
Option 2: Buy the \(cF\) zero-coupon bonds for years \(1,\ldots,Y\) and \(F\) of the \(Y-\)year zero coupon bond
For FI2-B: ignore the fair values!
today
today
+6 months
today
+12 months
coupon payment by 1YCP
1YCP face value payment
TB12M payment
TB6M
payment
coupon payment by 1YCP
We will use the second formulation in case FI2-B
Now: arbitrage portfolios
For FI2-B: ignore the fair values!
today
today
+6 months
today
+12 months
coupon payment by 1YCP
1YCP face value payment
TB12M payment
TB6M
payment
coupon payment by 1YCP
You have seen this before in your finance courses:
In fact, for \(c=0.05 \to 1/c=20\) and any integer value \(x=i\), we have:
Note: Now we have three constraints \(\to\) we could solve for \(x,y,z\)
For any integer value \(x=i\) (the number of TB6M that we buy)
So it must hold that
Note: you sell at the bid and buy at the ask \(\to\) selling at bids lead to positive cash-flows, buying at asks to negative cashflows
today
TB12M payment
TB6M
payment
outflows
inflows
sell 20 1YCP for 2,077
buy 1 TB6M for 98.6
buy 21 TB12M for 1,940.4
net gain:
$38
after
6 months
after
12 months
receive $100 for 1 TB6M
pay 20 \(\times\) $5\(=\)$100 for coupons of 1YCP
pay 20 \(\times\) $5\(=\)$100 for coupons of 1YCP
pay 20 \(\times\) $100\(=\)$2,000 for face value of 1YCP
receive 21 \(\times\) $100\(=\)$2,100 for face values of TB12M
net gain:
$0
net gain:
$0
Why is this arbitrage?
Because you make an instantaneous profit for a portfolio that is payoff neutral in the future (creates no losses nor benefits)