Topic 1. Collateral Management
Topic 2. ISDA Documentation and CSA
Topic 3. Valuation Agents
Topic 4. Collateral Agreements and Types of Collateral
Topic 5. Collateral Coverage
Topic 6. Collateral Disputes and Resolutions
Q1. Which of the following features is least likely a benefit of collateralization?
A. Reduces capital requirements.
B. Allows for more competitive pricing of counterparty risk.
C. Reduces market, operational, and liquidity risk.
D. Reduces credit exposure.
Explanation: C is correct.
Collateralizing trades reduces credit exposure (credit risk) and capital
requirements, and allows for more competitive pricing of counterparty risk. However, collateralization also creates other risks including market risk (negative equity leaving exposures partially or fully uncollateralized), operational risk (legal obstacles to take possession of collateral), and liquidity risk (difficulty in selling collateral at a fair market value).
Q2. Which of the following statements is least accurate regarding a credit support annex (CSA) and/or an ISDA Master Agreement?
A. ISDA Master Agreements help standardize collateral management.
B. CSAs must define all collateralization parameters in order to work as intended.
C. Compared to the ISDA Master Agreement, CSAs were first to establish collateral standards.
D. CSAs are incorporated into an ISDA Master Agreement.
Explanation: C is correct.
The purpose of a credit support annex (CSA) incorporated into an ISDA Master Agreement is to allow the parties to the agreement to mitigate credit risk through the posting of collateral. A CSA is created to govern issues such as collateral eligibility, interest rate payments, timing and mechanics associated with transfers, posted collateral calculations, haircuts to collateral securities (if applicable), substitutions of collateral, timing and methods for valuation, reuse of collateral, handling disputes, and collateral changes that may be triggered by various events.
In order to work as they are intended to work, CSAs must define all collateralization parameters and account for any scenarios that may impact both the counterparties and the collateral they are posting.
Topic 1. Collateral Agreement Features
Topic 2. Collateral Aspects
Topic 3. CSA Agreements
Topic 4. CSA Calculations
Topic 5. Collateral Agreement Risks
Topic 6. Regulatory Requirements
Haircuts and Collateral Valuation:
Q3. Assume a sovereign bond has a haircut of 5% and is used for a collateral call of $100,000. What amount is credited if a $100,000 bond is submitted, and what amount of bond is needed for $100,000 to be credited, respectively?
A. $100,000; $106,263.
B. $95,000; $100,000.
C. $95,000; $105,263.
D. $105,263; $95,000.
Explanation: C is correct.
A haircut is essentially a discount to the value of posted collateral. In other words, a haircut of x% means that for every unit of collateral posted, only (1−x)% of credit will be given. This credit is also referred to as valuation percentage.
If a particular sovereign bond has a haircut of 5% and a collateral call of $100,000 is made, only 95% of the collateral’s value is credited for collateral purposes. That is, in order to satisfy a $100,000 collateral call, $105,263 (= $100,000/0.95) of the sovereign bond must be posted.
Q1. Collateral agreements could potentially create multiple risks, including liquidity and liquidation risks. Which of the following is most accurate regarding liquidity and liquidation risk?
A. Liquidation risk occurs when the amount of a security sold is large relative to its outstanding volume, which may affect the price of that security.
B. Liquidity risk must be hedged in spot and forward markets.
C. Liquidation risk embodies a transaction cost when collateral is liquidated in accordance with initial margin.
D. Liquidity risk occurs when there are potential pitfalls in the handling of collateral, including human error.
Explanation: A is correct.
Liquidating a security in an amount that is large relative to its typical trading volume may negatively impact its price, leading to a substantial loss.
Q2. When dealing with a hedge fund, a bank would most likely negotiate a:
A. one-way agreement in the bank’s favor given the bank’s stronger credit rating.
B. one-way agreement in the bank’s favor agreeing to post collateral to the hedge fund.
C. two-way agreement given the relatively small difference in credit quality between the two entities.
D. two-way agreement where both parties agree to post collateral.
Explanation: A is correct.
The bank would most likely negotiate a one-way agreement in its own favor given the higher credit quality of the bank. This type of negotiation is typical when there are large differences in credit quality between two entities.
Overview: Collateralization improves asset recovery in counterparty default but should supplement, not replace, ongoing due diligence. If managed poorly, it creates additional risks.
Market Risk: Relates to market movements occurring between collateral postings; relatively small compared to uncollateralized risk but challenging to hedge and quantify
Residual risk remains due to minimum transfer amounts, thresholds, and margin period of risk (delay between collateral call and receipt)
Operational Risk: Can arise from missed collateral calls, failed deliveries, computer/human error, and fraud
Liquidity and Liquidation Risk: Transaction costs (bid-ask spreads, selling costs) arise when liquidating collateral to mitigate counterparty risk
Funding Liquidity Risk:
Refers to institution's ability to settle obligations quickly when due, stemming from CSA funding needs
Default Risk
Default of posted security lowers collateral value, potentially beyond haircut coverage
Foreign Exchange Risk
Occurs when counterparties operate in different currencies