Topic 1. Global Balance Sheets and Funding Risk
Topic 2. Vulnerabilities in Balance Sheets
Q3. The funding gap can be best defined as:
A. a mismatch between banks’ domestic and foreign currency obligations.
B. the difference between banks’ foreign currency and domestic currency reserves.
C. the difference between a bank’s collateralized and noncollateralized foreign borrowings.
D. a foreign currency mismatch if the investment horizon of the foreign currency assets exceeds the time to maturity of the foreign currency liabilities.
Explanation: D is correct.
A bank’s funding gap is best defined as a foreign currency mismatch if the investment horizon of the foreign currency assets exceeds the time to maturity of the foreign currency liabilities.
The rate of growth in foreign claims also accelerated, with an annual growth in 2007 of nearly 30%.
U.S. dollar-denominated positions (plus other non-euro currencies) contributed over half of the total increase in foreign assets.
European banks primarily financed foreign claims in domestic currency through intra-euro area cross-border positions.
Q1. If the maturity of a bank’s U.S. dollar liabilities to nonbanks is longer term, a(n):
A. lower bound of the U.S. dollar funding gap can be established as the net U.S. dollar position to nonbanks.
B. upper bound of the U.S. dollar funding gap can be established as the net U.S. dollar position to nonbanks.
C. lower bound of the U.S. dollar funding gap can be established as the gross U.S. dollar position to nonbanks.
D. upper bound of the U.S. dollar funding gap can be established as the gross U.S. dollar position to nonbanks.
Explanation: A is correct.
If the maturity of U.S. dollar liabilities to nonbanks is longer-term, a lower bound of the U.S. dollar funding gap can be established as the net U.S. dollar position to nonbanks. If the maturity of U.S. dollar liabilities to nonbanks is shorter-term, an upper bound of the U.S. dollar funding gap can be established as the gross U.S. dollar position to nonbanks.
Q2. Prior to 2007, banks would least likely finance their increasing investment holdings of U.S. dollar assets by:
A. drawing on U.S. dollar bank credit lines.
B. borrowing U.S. dollars from their central bank.
C. borrowing U.S. dollars directly in the interbank markets.
D. borrowing in their domestic currency and converting it to U.S. dollars in the spot market.
Explanation: A is correct.
Banks could finance their increasing investment holdings of U.S. dollar assets by
borrowing in their domestic currency and converting it to U.S. dollars in the spot
market, or by borrowing U.S. dollars directly in the interbank markets, from other
market participants or from their central bank. Banks could also convert their
domestic currency liabilities into U.S. dollars using FX swaps to buy the asset.
Topic 1. Causes of the 2007–2009 U.S. Dollar Shortage
Topic 2. Funding Gap
Topic 3. International Policy Response by Central Banks
Maturity Transformation and increase in funding gap: Shift toward less stable short-term funding.
FX Swap Market Disruptions: Rising counterparty & liquidity risks increased costs of USD borrowing through FX Swaps for banks.
Money Market Retreat: Pulled away from bank-issued paper.
Central Bank Actions: Reduced USD foreign exchange reserves.
Asset Illiquidity: Hard to sell structured products & other non-government USD assets without large losses.
Balance Sheet Pressure: Off-balance sheet vehicles brought back on-balance sheet and pre-arranged credit commitments drawn.
As USD assets matured, banks needed to roll them over.
Before crisis, rollovers funded mainly via nonbank market & short-term FX swaps.
Post-crisis: Assets couldn’t be rolled over → holding period lengthened while funding maturity shortened. This scenario created a U.S. dollar shortage.
Funding Gap: If the investment horizon of the foreign currency assets exceeds the time to maturity of the foreign currency liabilities (funding or FX swaps), a currency mismatch occurs which is known as funding gap.
Lower bound: $583B (assuming that banks closed positions).
Adjusted (true) gap: $880B (assuming that positions rolled over and write-downs hid exposures).
Fed lends USD to foreign central bank, collateralized by foreign currency.
Central bank distributes USD locally (often via auctions).
Allowed even banks without U.S. subsidiaries or eligible collateral to access USD liquidity.
Early Partners (2007): ECB & Swiss National Bank.
Post-Lehman Expansion: Added Bank of England, Bank of Canada, Bank of Japan, Reserve Banks of Australia & New Zealand, Latin America, and Asia.
Usage fell from $583B peak → ~$50B by late 2009.
Prevented distressed USD asset sales.
Reduced interbank rate volatility.
Eased USD appreciation pressure.
The Fed's unlimited dollar creation capacity, distributed via international swap lines, demonstrates that swap lines can mitigate currency pressures beyond just the U.S. dollar.
Swap networks don't create moral hazard because lines are fully collateralized, eliminating Fed counterparty risk while other central banks handle credit monitoring of their own banks.
Q1. Which of the following factors is least likely a contributor to the U.S. dollar shortage during the financial crisis?
A. Banks’ prearranged credit commitments were drawn.
B. Structured finance products became more difficult to sell.
C. Central banks globally reduced their issuance of U.S. dollars.
D. Banks brought off-balance vehicles back to their balance sheets.
Explanation: C is correct.
Central banks outside of the U.S. can only issue their domestic currency. Only the Fed can issue U.S. dollars. Some of the factors that contributed to the U.S. dollar shortage and increasing difficulty for banks to fund their U.S. dollar obligations included difficulty in selling less liquid structured products, bringing off-balance-sheet vehicles onto banks’ balance sheets, and drawing prearranged credit commitments.
Q2. Which of the following statements about the U.S. dollar swap lines extended by the Fed to global central banks during the 2007–2009 financial crisis is least accurate?
A. Swap lines could be unlimited.
B. Swap lines were primarily uncollateralized.
C. The Fed can be seen as a lender of last resort.
D. Central banks typically made funds available locally through auctions.
Explanation: B is correct.
Swap lines to central banks were collateralized by foreign currencies.
The swap lines to some of the largest central banks globally were made unlimited in 2008. As a result, the Fed can be seen as a lender of last resort. Borrowing central banks typically made the funding they obtained through the swap network available locally through U.S. dollar auctions.