Topic 1. Overview
Topic 2. Need for Basel Regulations
Topic 3. BCBS Creation
Topic 4. Capital and Risk-Weighted Assets
Topic 5. Two Capital Compoments
Topic 6. RWAs for On-Balance-Sheet Items
Topic 7. RWAs for Off-Balance Sheet Items
Topic 8. Credit Exposure Method
Topic 9. Original Exposure Method
Topic 10. 1995 Amendment: Netting
Topic 11. 1996 Amendment: Market Risk and Trading Activities
Topic 12. 1996 Amendment: SA and IMA
Topic 13. 1996 Amendment: MR VaR (IMA)
Topic 14. 1996 Amendment: Backtesting
Basel I defined the two components of capital as follows:
Tier 1 capital (or core capital) consists of:
Equity (subtract goodwill from equity).
Noncumulative perpetual preferred stock.
Tier 2 capital (or supplementary capital) consists of:
Cumulative perpetual preferred stock.
Certain types of 99-year debentures.
Subordinated debt with an original maturity greater than five years (where the subordination is to depositors).
Risk-weighted assets (RWAs) are calculated by assigning risk weights to each on-balance sheet and off-balance sheet item that reflect the bank's credit risk exposure to those assets
A sample of some of the risk weights assigned to various asset categories is shown in Figure 62.1.
RWAs are calculated by multiplying the on-balance sheet amount of the item by the percentage risk weight and summing the products.
Example: The assets of Blue Star Bank consist of $20million in U.S. Treasury bills, $20 million in insured mortgages, $50million in uninsured mortgages, and $150million in corporate loans. Using the risk weights from Figure 62.1, calculate the bank’s risk-weighted assets.
Solution:
For IRS and other OTC derivatives, regulators may choose between the current exposure method and the original exposure method.
For the current exposure method, the credit equivalent amount is calculated as:
where
V: current value of the derivative of the market
D: add-on factor (to account for changes in the contract's future market market)
L: principal amount
Q1. Michigan One Bank and Trust has entered a $200 million interest rate swap with a corporation. The remaining maturity of the swap is six years. The current value of the swap is $3.5 million. Using the
table below to find the add-on factor for the interest rate swap, the equivalent risk-weighted asset (RWA) under Basel I is closest to:
A. $3,000,000.
B. $3,250,000.
C. $3,500,000.
D. $6,500,000.
Explanation: B is correct.
The add-on factor is 1.5% of the interest rate swap principal for swaps with a maturity greater than five years.
The risk-weight factor for a corporate counterparty under Basel I is 100% for corporate loans.
For banks choosing the original exposure method, a sample of add-on factors is shown in Figure 62.4.
Netting: The ISDA master agreement allowed for positive and negative values to offset one another, called netting.
Netting is frequently employed in transactions that generate credit exposure to both sides.
With netting, if a counterparty defaults, the bank only loses the net amount of all transactions, not the sum of all positive exposures.
The 1995 amendment allowed for a reduction in the CEA by putting a legal netting agreement was in place.
The Net Replacement Ratio (NRR) was introduced to measure the impact of netting:
The CEA formula was modified to include the NRR, reducing the RWA
In calculating CEAs, the complete netting of market positions is allowed and add-ons are reduced for each category.
The 1996 amendment required banks to measure and hold capital for these risks.
Trading Book: Banks must mark-to-market (i.e., fair value accounting) those instruments that are held by the bank for the purpose of trading. These include bonds, marketable equity securities, commodities, foreign currencies, and most derivatives.
Banking Book: Banks do not have to use fair value accounting on assets they intend to hold for investment purposes. This includes loans and some debt securities.
The 1996 Amendment proposed two methods for calculating market risk:
Standardized Measurement Method (SA)
Internal Model-Based Approach (IMA)
Risks covered by the VaR model include movements in broadmarket variables such as interest rates, exchange rates, stock market indices, and commodity prices.
The VaR model does not incorporate company-specific risks such as changes in a firm’s credit spread or changes in a company’s stock price. The SR charge captures these company-specific risks.
For example, a corporate bond has interest rate risk, captured by VaR, and credit risk, captured by the SR.
Note: The 1996 Amendment created Tier 3 capital, consisting of short-term subordinated, unsecured debt with an original maturity of at least two years. It could be used to meet the market risk capital requirement. Tier 3 capital has subsequently been eliminated under Basel III.
VaR parameters: 10-day time horizon, 99% confidence level.
MR VaR= max(VaRt−1, m×VaRavg)
VaRt−1 = previous day's VaR.
VaRavg = average VaR over the last 60 trading days.
m = multiplicative factor (at least 3, can be higher if the model has deficiencies).
Banks calculate a 10-day 99% VaR for SR. Regulators then apply a multiplicative factor (which must be at least four) to determine the capital requirement.
The total capital requirement for banks using IMA must be at least 50% of the capital required using SA.
The amendment also introduced a separate charge for specific risk (SR) to capture company-specific risks (e.g., changes in a firm's credit spread).
Total capital charge (1996 Amendment): Sum of Basel I credit risk capital and the new market risk capital. For simplicity, the RWAs for market risk capital was defined as 12.5 times the MR VaR.
Total Capital=0.08×(credit risk RWA+market risk RWA)
Market RWA=12.5×[max(VaRt−1,m×VaRavg)]
Example: MR Capital Charge
Previous day's VaR = $10 million, Average VaR over 62 days = $8 million., Multiplicative factor = 3.
MR Capital Charge = 0.08 × Market RWA = 0.08×[12.5×(3×$8 million)]=$24 million.
If, over the previous 250 days, the number of exceptions is:
less than 5,m is usually set equal to 3.
5, 6, 7, 8, or 9,m is set equal to 3.4, 3.5, 3.65, 3.75, and 3.85, respectively.
greater than 10,m is set equal to 4.
Q2. Saugatuck National Bank uses the internal model-based approach to set market risk capital as prescribed by the 1996 Amendment to the 1988 Basel Accord. The bank has backtested its 99% one-day VaRs against the actual losses over the last 250 trading days. Based on the results of the backtesting, the bank recorded 11 exceptions. Based on these results, the multiplicative factor (m)
in the model should be set:
A. less than 3.
B. equal to 3.
C. between 3.1 and 3.9.
D. equal to 4.
Explanation: D is correct.
Saugatuck National Bank must compare the VaR calculated using its current method for each of the 250 trading days to the actual loss over the same period to determine the multiplicative factor. If the actual loss is greater than the estimated loss, an exception is recorded. If, over the previous 250 days, the number of
exceptions is:
Therefore, with 11 exceptions recorded, should be set equal to four.
Topic 1. Basel II Overview
Topic 2. Basel II Pillar 1: Minimum Capital Requirements
Topic 3. Basel II Pillar 2: Supervisory Review
Topic 4. Credit Risk Capital Requirements
Topic 5. Credit Risk Capital Requirements
Topic 6. CR Capital Requirements: Standardized Approach
Topic 7. CR Capital Requirements: Internal Ratings-Based (IRB) Approach
Topic 8. CR Capital Requirements: Advance IRB Approach
Topic 9. CR Capital Requirements: Foundation and Advance IRB Approaches for Retail Exposures
Topic 10. Operational Risk Capital Requirements
Topic 11. Solvency II Framework
The key element of Basel II regarding capital requirements is to consider the credit ratings of counterparties.
Capital charges for market risk remained unchanged from the 1996 Amendment. Basel II added capital charges for operational risk.
Banks must hold total capital equal to 8% of RWA under Basel II, as under Basel I.
Total capital under Basel II is calculated as:
The goal of Pillar 3 is to increase transparency. Banks are required to disclose more information about the risks they take and the capital allocated to these risks.
Qualitative disclosures such as the bank’s corporate structure and quantitative disclosures, such as the bank’s capital, risk exposures, and risk measures, were required.
The key idea behind Pillar 3 is that if banks must share more information with shareholders (and potential shareholders), they will make better risk management decisions.
Banks have discretion in determining what is relevant and material and thus what should be disclosed. Also, using data provided by banks, supervisors fine-tuned the design of the Accord, repeatedly conducting quantitative impact studies (QIS).
According to Basel II, banks should disclose:
The entities (banks and other businesses such as securities firms in Europe) to which Basel II rules are applied.
A description of the characteristics, terms, and conditions of all the capital instruments held by the bank.
A list of the instruments comprising the bank’s Tier 1 capital. The amount of capital provided by each instrument should also be disclosed.
A list of the instruments comprising the bank’s Tier 2 capital.
The capital requirements for each type of risk covered under Basel II: credit, market, and operational risks.
Information about other bank risks.
Information about the bank’s risk management function, how it is structured, and how it operates.
Basel II specifies three approaches that banks can use to measure credit risk:
Standardized approach
Foundation internal ratings-based (IRB) approach
Advanced IRB approach
The standardized approach is used by banks with less sophisticated risk management functions. The risk-weighting approach is similar to Basel I, although some risk weights were changed.
Significant changes include:
OECD status is no longer considered important under Basel II.
The credit ratings of countries, banks, and corporations are relevant under Basel II.
Bank supervisors may apply lower risk weights when the exposure is to the country in which the bank is incorporated.
Bank supervisors may choose to base risk weights on the credit ratings of the countries in which a bank is incorporated rather than on the bank’s credit rating.
Risk weights are lower for unrated countries, banks, and companies than for poorly rated countries, banks, and companies.
Bank supervisors who elect to use the risk weights under Basel II's standardized approach are allowed to lower the risk weights for claims with maturities less than three months.
Additionally, a risk weight of 75% is applied to unrated retail, 35% to unrated mortgage, 0% to cash, and 100% to other.
Collateral Adjustments
Simple Approach: Collateral risk weight replaces counterparty risk weight for covered exposure, with counterparty risk weight applying to uncovered portions and minimum 20% risk weight for collateral
Q1. Bank Macatawa has a $150 million exposure to Holland Metals Co. The exposure is secured by $125 million of collateral consisting of AA+-rated bonds. Holland Metals Co. is unrated. The collateral risk weight is 20%. Bank Macatawa assumes an adjustment to the exposure of +15% to fallow for possible increases in the exposure and allows for a −25% change in the value of the collateral. Risk-weighted assets for the exposure are closest to:
A. $78.75 million.
B. $93.75 million.
C. $118.13 million.
D. $172.50 million.
Explanation: A is correct.
Exposure = (1.15 × 150) − (0.75 × 125) = 172.5 − 93.75 = $78.75
The risk weight for an unrated corporate counterparty based on Figure 62.5 in the reading is 100%. Applying the 100% risk weight, risk-weighted assets are: risk-weighted assets = 1.0 × 78.75 = $78.75 million.
The goal of the IRB approach is to capture unexpected losses (UL). Expected losses (EL) should be covered by the bank’s pricing (e.g., charging higher interest rates on riskier loans to cover EL).
The capital required by the bank is thus VaR minus the bank’s EL.
Here, is the worst-case probability of default or the default rate at the 99.9 percentile (DR99.9).
The bank can be 99.9% certain that the loss from the ith counterparty will not exceed this amount in the coming year.
PD is the one-year probability of default of the ith obligor given a large number of obligors, and is the copula correlation between each pair of obligors.
Assuming the bank has a large portfolio of instruments such as loans and derivatives with the same correlation, the one-year 99.9% VaR is approximately:
The capital the bank is required to maintain is the excess of the worst-case loss over the bank’s expected loss defined as follows:
Note: DR99.9, PD, and LGD are expressed as decimals while EAD is expressed in dollars.
DR99.9 increases as the correlation between each pair of obligors increases and as the probability of default increases. If the correlation is 0, then DR99.9 is equal to PD.
Basel II assumes a relationship between the PD and the correlation based on empirical research. The formula for correlation is:
Inverse PD-Correlation Relationship: As creditworthiness declines and PD increases, correlation decreases because PD becomes more idiosyncratic and less affected by overall market conditions
From a counterparty’s perspective, the capital required for the counterparty incorporates a maturity adjustment as follows:
Maturity Adjustment (MA): MA allows for the possibility of declining creditworthiness and/or the possible default of the counterparty for longer term exposures (i.e., longer than one year). If M = 1.0, then MA = 1.0 and the maturity adjustment has no impact.
Capital required equals 8% of RWA, sufficient to cover unexpected losses at 99.9% confidence over one year. Expected losses are covered via pricing.
DR99.9 implies a default once every 1,000 years.
The Basel Committee may adjust capital via a scaling factor (e.g., 1.06 or 0.98).
The foundation IRB approach and the advanced IRB approach are similar with the exception of who provides the estimates of LGD, EAD, and M. The key differences are outlined below:
Foundation IRB Approach
The bank supplies the PD estimate, with a 0.0.3% floor set for bank and corporate exposures
The LGD, EAD, and M are supervisory values set by the Basel Committee. The Basel Committee set LGD at 45% for senior claims and 75% for subordinated claims. If there is collateral, the LGD is reduced using the comprehensive approach described earlier.
The EAD is calculated similar to the CEA required under Basel I. It includes the impact of netting.
M is usually set to 2.5.
Banks supply their own estimates of PD, LGD, EAD, and M.
PD can be reduced by credit mitigants such as credit triggers subject to a floor of 0.03% for bank and corporate exposures.
LGD is primarily influenced by the collateral and the seniority of the debt.
With supervisory approval, banks can use their own estimates of credit conversion factors when calculating EAD.
The two methods are merged for retail exposures. Banks provide their own estimates of PD, EAD, and LGD.
There is no maturity adjustment (MA) for retail exposures.
The capital requirement is EAD × LGD × (DR99.9 − PD).
Risk-weighted assets are 12.5 × EAD × LGD × (DR99.9 − PD).
Correlations are assumed to be much lower for retail exposures than for corporate exposures.
Q2. Which of the following accords first required banks to hold capital for operational risk?
A. Basel I.
B. The 1996 Amendment to Basel I.
C. Basel II.
D. Solvency II.
Explanation: C is correct.
Basel II requires banks to maintain capital for operational risks. Banks can use three methods to measure operational risk. They are the basic indicator approach, the standardized approach, and the advanced measurement approach.
In the US and the EU, Solvency II establishes capital requirements for operational, investment, and underwriting risks of insurance companies.
Solvency II requires capital buffers above the minimum capital requirement (MCR), called the solvency capital requirement (SCR).
SA and IMA are used to determine the SCR under Solvency II.
Standardized Approach (SA): Designed for less sophisticated insurance firms unable or unwilling to develop firm-specific risk models, capturing average firm risk profiles and providing cost efficiency for smaller firms with limited risk management capabilities
Internal Models Approach (IMA): Similar to Basel II IRB approach, using one-year VaR at 99.5% confidence level with capital charges for underwriting risk (life, non-life, health insurance), investment risk (market and credit), and operational risk
QIS and Capital Structure: Regulators use quantitative impact studies (QISs) to assess capital adequacy for significant market events, with insurance companies utilizing three-tier capital structure similar to Basel II (Tier 1: equity/retained earnings, Tier 2: liquidation write-off liabilities, Tier 3: other policyholder-subordinated capital)
Internal Model Tests: Insurance companies must satisfy: (1)statistical quality test (data and VaR methodology), (2) calibration test (alignment with industry SCR standards), and (3) use test (model relevance in business decision-making)
Q3. Which of the following statements is correct regarding capital requirements for insurance companies?
A. Basel II includes the regulation of banks and insurance companies in the three pillars.
B. The minimum capital requirement is likely to be higher than the solvency capital requirement for insurance companies.
C. The repercussion for violating the solvency capital requirement is likely liquidation and the transfer of company insurance policies to another firm.
D. The internal models approach to calculating the solvency capital requirement is similar to internal rangs-based approach under Basel II in that the firm must calculate a VaR with a oneyear time horizon.
Explanation: D is correct.
Solvency II, not Basel II, establishes capital requirements for insurance companies. The minimum capital requirement (MCR) is just that, a true floor and is thus likely to be lower than the solvency capital requirement (SCR). The repercussion for violating the MCR is likely the prohibition of taking new business and possible liquidation. The repercussion for violating the SCR is the requirement of a plan to remedy the situation and bring the capital back to the required level. The internal models approach is similar to the internal ratings based approach under Basel II in that the insurance company must calculate a one-year VaR with a 99.5% confidence level (versus 99.9% confidence for banks under Basel II).