Topic 1. Introduction
Topic 2. Stresses VaR Overview
Topic 3. Stresses VaR Calculation
Topic 4. Incremental Risk Charge
Topic 5. Comprehensive Risk Charge
The calculation of a stressed value at risk (SVaR)measure.
The implementation of a new incremental risk change (IRC).
A comprehensive risk measure (CRM) for instruments sensitive to correlations between default risks of various instruments (e.g., securitizations and related instruments).
Previous day's VaR (10-day horizon, 99% confidence).
VaRavg: Average VaR over past 60 days (10-day horizon, 99% confidence level).
mr: Multiplicative factor (supervisor-determined, minimum 3).
SVaRt−1: Previous day's stressed VaR (10-day horizon, 99% confidence).
SVaRavg: Average stressed VaR over past 60 days (10-day horizon, 99% confidence level).
ms: Stressed VaR multiplicative factor (supervisor-determined, minimum 3).
The capital charge for MR under Basel 2.5 is at least twice that under Basel II due to the addition of SVaR.
Q1. Which of the following statements about a stressed value at risk (VaR), required under Basel 2.5, is correct?
A. Basel 2.5 has established the year 2008 as the “stress” period. All banks use data from 2008 to calculate the stressed VaR.
B. The stressed VaR replaces the “normal” VaR for the purpose of calculating capital for credit risks.
C. Market risk capital under Basel 2.5 should be at least double that of market risk capital under Basel II due to the addition of the stressed VaR.
D. The stressed VaR must be calculated using a 99.9% confidence interval.
Explanation: C is correct.
Basel 2.5 required banks to calculate two VaRs, the usual VaR, using the historical simulation method, and a stressed VaR, using a 99% confidence level, 250-day period of stressed market conditions. The total market risk capital charge is the sum of the usual bank VaR and the stressed VaR.
Initially, regulators thought the year 2008 would be ideal for stressed market conditions. However, banks are now required to identify a one-year period when their portfolios performed poorly. This means the stressed period may be different across banks.
Q2. Banks are required to rebalance their portfolios as the creditworthiness of bonds decline, leading to losses over time but generally not to outright default. This requirement to specify a liquidity horizon for each instrument in the portfolio and rebalance at the end of the liquidity horizon is part of the:
A. incremental risk charge calculation.
B. net stable funding charge formula.
C. countercyclical buffer estimation.
D. comprehensive risk charge calculation.
Explanation: A is correct.
As part of the incremental risk charge (IRC) calculation, banks are required to estimate a liquidity horizon for each instrument in the portfolio. For example, assume an AA+-rated bond in the portfolio has a liquidity horizon of three months. If, at the end of three months, the bond has defaulted or has been downgraded, it is assumed that the bank will replace the bond with an AA+-rated bond comparable to the one held at the start of the period.
This rebalancing is assumed at the end of each three-month period (or six months, nine months, etc., depending on the estimated liquidity horizon). Rebalancing allows banks to take losses as instruments are downgraded but generally allows the bank to avoid defaults.
Purpose: The Comprehensive Risk (CR) charge is a single capital charge for correlation-dependent instruments, replacing the Specific Risk Charge (SRC) and the IRC for these instruments.
"Correlation Book" Instruments: Applies to instruments sensitive to correlations between default risks of different assets, such as Asset-Backed Securities (ABSs) and Collateralized Debt Obligations (CDOs).
Crisis Experience: In normal times, highly-rated tranches of these instruments have little risk. However, during stress periods (e.g., 2007-2009 crisis), correlations increase, making even high-rated tranches vulnerable.
Standardized Approach for Rated Instruments:
Unrated/Low-Rated Instruments: For instruments rated below BB- or unrated, banks must hold dollar-for-dollar capital (100% capital charge).
Internal Models: With supervisory approval, banks can use internal models for CR charge, but these require rigorous stress tests and must capture:
Credit spread risk.
Multiple defaults.
Volatility of implied correlations.
Relationship between implied correlations and credit spreads.
Costs of rebalancing hedges.
Volatility of recovery rates.
Topic 1. Basel III Capital Requirements
Topic 2. Capital Conservation Buffer and Countercyclical Buffer
Topic 3. Liquidity Risk Mangement
The crisis revealed weaknesses in the Basel II framework, including:
Market participants during the crisis focused exclusively on tangible Tier 1 common equity capital as the only capital type capable of maintaining banks as going concerns
Tier 1 capital (or core capital) includes:
Common equity including retained earnings (called Tier 1 equity capital or Tier 1 common capital).
A limited amount of unrealized gains and losses and minority interest.
Goodwill and other intangibles.
Deferred tax assets.
Changes in retained earnings arising from securitized transactions.
Changes in retained earnings arising from the bank’s credit risk, called debit (debt) value adjustment (DVA).
Tier 2 capital (or supplementary capital) is designed to absorb losses after failure. It is meant to protect depositors and other creditors. It includes:
Debt subordinated to depositors with an original maturity of five years or more.
Some preferred stock, such as cumulative perpetual preferred.
General loan loss reserves, not allocated to absorb losses on specific positions. Reserves may not exceed 1.25% of standardized approach risk-weighted assets (RWAs), or 0.6% of IRB RWAs.
Some preferred stock, such as cumulative perpetual preferred.
General loan loss reserves, not allocated to absorb losses on specific positions. Reserves may not exceed 1.25% of standardized approach risk-weighted assets (RWAs), or 0.6% of IRB RWAs.
Common equity is known as going-concern capital. It absorbs losses when the bank has positive equity (i.e., is a going concern).
Tier 2 capital is known as gone-concern capital.
When the bank has negative capital and is no longer a going concern, Tier 2 capital absorbs losses.
Depositors are ranked above Tier 2 capital in liquidation so theoretically, as long as Tier 2 capital is positive, depositors should be paid in full.
Q1. Under Basel III, capital must be adjusted downward to reflect which of the following?
A. Planned bonuses for managers.
B. Deficits in defined benefit pension plans.
C. Corporate convertible debt.
D. There is no requirement under Basel III to adjust capital downward for anything.
Explanation: B is correct.
Capital is adjusted downward to reflect:
Capital requirements for each tier and for total capital are:
Tier 1 equity capital must be 4.5% of RWAs at all times.
Total Tier 1 capital (i.e., equity capital plus additional Tier 1 capital such as perpetual preferred stock) must be 6% of RWAs at all times.
Total capital (total Tier 1 capital plus Tier 2 capital)must be at least 8% of RWAs at all times. This requirement was left unchanged.
By comparison, under Basel I, the equity capital requirement was 2% of RWAs and the total Tier 1 capital requirement was 4% of RWAs.
The new requirements are significantly more rigorous because:
the percentages are higher
the definition of what qualifies as equity capital has been tightened.
The 8% total capital requirement is the same as under Basel I and Basel II but the stricter definition of equity capital applies under Basel III.
Requirement: Banks must build a buffer of Tier 1 equity capital equal to 2.5% of RWAs in normal times.
Normal Times Minimums:
Tier 1 equity capital ratio: 4.5% (base) + 2.5% (CCB) = 7.0%.
Total Tier 1 capital: 6.0% (base) + 2.5% (CCB) = 8.5%.
Total capital: 8.0% (base) + 2.5% (CCB) = 10.5%.
Dividend Restrictions: When the CCB is used, dividend payments are constrained (e.g., 60% earnings retention if Tier 1 equity is 6%).
Motivation: Prevent government bailouts of Global Systemically Important Banks (G-SIBs) due to their significant societal cost if they fail.
Requirements: Additional capital ranging from 1% to 3.5% for G-SIBs (e.g., HSBC, JPMorgan Chase have been in 2.5% category).
Leverage Ratio Buffer: Introduced for G-SIBs (e.g., half of risk-based G-SIB buffer, or half the sum of CCB and G-SIB risk-based buffer).
Total Loss-Absorbing Capacity (TLAC): Proposals for G-SIBs to use TLAC instruments (equity, subordinated debt) to absorb losses and recapitalize, potentially converting debt to equity (CoCos).
Q2. The capital conservation buffer:
A. is intended to protect banks from the countercyclical nature of bank earnings.
B. can be set between 0.0% and 2.5% of risk-weighted assets, and is at the discretion of the regulators in individual countries.
C. causes the Tier 1 equity capital ratio requirement to increase to 7% of risk-weighted assets in normal economic periods.
D. requires that total capital to risk-weighted assets must be 10.5% at all times.
Explanation: C is correct.
The capital conservation buffer is meant to protect banks in times of financial distress. Banks are required to build up a buffer of Tier 1 equity capital equal to 2.5% of risk-weighted assets in normal times, which will then be used to cover losses in stress periods. This means that in normal times, a bank should have a minimum 7% Tier 1 equity capital to risk-weighted assets ratio, an 8.5% total Tier 1 capital to risk-weighted assets ratio, and a 10.5% Tier 1 plus Tier 2 capital to risk-weighted assets ratio. The capital conservation buffer is a requirement and is not left to the discretion of individual country regulators. It is not a requirement at all times but is built up to that level in normal economic periods and declines in stress periods.
Countercyclical Buffer (CCyB): Motivation: Protect against cyclicality of bank earnings and dampen credit cycles.
Rationales:
Overheating: Higher capital requirements restrict credit supply, reducing potential for overheated credit markets and financial crises.
Cost-of-capital: Easier/less costly to raise capital in good times, allowing financial stability to be achieved at lower cost by adjusting CCyB.
Crisis Lessons: The 2007-2009 financial crisis highlighted that solvent banks could fail due to liquidity issues (e.g., Northern Rock). Basel III aimed to improve liquidity risk management.
Minimum Leverage Ratio:
Requirement: Basel III specifies a minimum leverage ratio of 3%.
Calculation: Capital / Total Exposure.
Total Exposure: Includes all on-balance sheet items (not risk-weighted) and some off-balance sheet items (e.g., loan commitments).
Mismatched Financing Issue: Banks often finance long-term obligations with short-term funds (e.g., commercial paper, repurchase agreements), which creates liquidity risk during stress periods when short-term financing becomes difficult to roll over.
Two Key Liquidity Ratios: Basel III requires banks to meet:
Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR)
Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR)
Focus: Bank's ability to withstand a 30-day period of reduced/disrupted liquidity.
Stress Scenarios: Includes events like a three-notch downgrade, loss of deposits, complete loss of wholesale funding, increased "haircuts" on collateral, and potential drawdowns on credit lines.
Goal: Banks should be able to sell liquid assets to meet liquidity demands during the 30-day period while restoring confidence.
LCR= high-quality liquid assets/ net cash outflows in a 30-day period ≥100%
High-Quality Liquid Assets (HQLAs):
Examples: Deposits at central banks, zero-risk-weight government securities (no haircuts).
Haircuts: Corporate debt and equity have a 50% haircut (e.g., $100M corporate debt counts as $50M HQLA). Individual mortgage loans are excluded.
Implementation Complexity: While the definition is simple, implementation is complex due to varying withdrawal speeds of different liabilities (e.g., 3% run-off for insured retail deposits vs. 100% for non-operational wholesale funding).
Focus: Bank's ability to manage liquidity over a period of one year.
NSFR = amount of available stable funding/amount of required stable funding ≥100%
Available Stable Funding (ASF): Higher factor = more illiquid/less likely to leave the bank (similar to haircuts).
Q3. Highlands Bank has estimated stable funding in the bank to be $100 million. The bank estimates that net cash outlows over the coming 30 days will be $137 million. The bank has capital of $5
million and a total exposure of $140 million. The bank estimates that it has high-quality liquid assets of $125 million. What is the bank’s liquidity coverage ratio (LCR)?
A. 89.3%.
B. 91.2%.
C. 73.0%.
D. 3.6%.
Explanation: B is correct.
Basel III requires a minimum liquidity coverage ratio of 100%. The LCR focuses on the bank’s ability to weather a 30-day period of reduced/disrupted liquidity.
LCR is computed as follows:
LCR= high-quality liquid assets / net cash outflows in a 30-day period
LCR = $125 million/$137 million = 0.912 or 91.2%
In this case, Highlands Bank does not meet the minimum 100% requirement and is in violation of the rule.
Topic 1. Contingent Convertible Bonds (CoCos)
Topic 2. Reforms After the Global Financial Crises
Q1. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the mechanics and motivations of contingent convertible bonds (CoCos)?
I. During normal financial periods, CoCos are debt and do not drag down return on equity.
II. During periods of financial stress, CoCos convert to equity, providing a cushion against loss, which helps prevent insolvency.
A. Statement I only.
B. Statement II only.
C. Both Statements I and II.
D. Neither Statement I nor II.
Explanation: C is correct.
Contingent convertible bonds (CoCos), unlike traditional convertible bonds, convert to equity when the company or bank is experiencing financial strains. During normal financial periods, the bonds are debt and thus do not drag down return on equity (ROE).